Ask the Pastor

September 3, 2010

My most regular questioner writes, “I have questions regarding Melchizedek…..Who and/or what was Melchizedek? I hear he was a great priest….I also hear that it’s not so much a name as it is a title or designation of honor. Well, that still leaves me confused.  I also heard that he was never born and didn’t have parents.  Please explain this to me.  Melchizedek’s name is always used as an example in the pulpit, also I know that Abraham paid tithes to him, but was he a human being?  I’ve even heard some people say he was Christ in the form of a man. HELP!!!!”

Great questions, all.  And I should admit upfront that there are many different opinions as to his identity.  But since this is my blog, I’ll tell you how I see it:

  • by looking at Genesis 14:17-19, (the historical reference to him), plus Psalm 110:4 (a Messianic prophecy about Jesus), plus Hebrews 5:6, 10; 6:20 (all referring back to the prophecy of Psa. 110) and then Hebrews 7:9-20 (which explain the significance of that prophecy as it relates to Jesus, and his eternal priesthood), you have read everything we know about Melchizedek, except for what I consider the most pertinent information (and the answer to your questions)
  • that info (and the ONLY other time he is mentioned in Scripture) is found in Hebrews 7:1-3.  There we learn:
  1. He is the “king of justice and the king of peace
  2. There is “no record” of his mother or father, or of any genealogy as far as his ancestral line, which causes the writer of Scripture to say, “no beginning or end to his life”.  To me, that would really leave no option but to say that Melchizedek (like our recent question about The Angel who wrestled with Jacob) was a “theophany” (an appearance of God in the form of man; i.e., a pre-Bethlehem appearance of Jesus!)
  3. Having said that, I should in all honesty say that some people disagree, and their explanation is that “he lost his birth certificate” (I guess I’m being a little sarcastic, because, in my humble opinion, the significance of him not having any ancestry is that his priesthood is eternal, which wouldn’t be true if he were just a human being)

So, to answer your questions, he was definitely a priest to whom Abraham paid tithes, and he was NOT born so he had no parents, but rather he was Jesus in human form prior to Bethlehem.  Since he never died, his priesthood lasts forever, unlike the priesthood of Aaron in the Old Testament!

I hope that helps.  Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

Ask the Pastor

August 27, 2010

My most faithful questioner asks, “I have a question regarding Genesis 32:24.  Who was this angel who wrestled with Jacob and what was the reason? The scriptures reads like this was something common and happened to people all of the time, but I think that I would have been horrified to try and wrestle with an angel. And obviously Jacob knew it was an angel because he would not let the angel go until the angel blessed him. And how was he able to overpower an angel?  Am I missing something here?”

All great questions – let me try to answer them, in order:

1.  The angel who wrestled with Jacob was, in my understanding (and with the agreement of Bible scholars) what we call a “theophany“.  By that, I simply mean that God Himself appeared to Jacob in the form of a man, or an angel.  (Notice that in most Bible translations, the word ‘angel’ in this story is capitalized, ‘Angel’, to designate that this was no ordinary man, but God Himself).  Probably plainer still, this angel was Jesus, God-in-a-human-body, prior to Bethlehem.

For further proof of this, notice the wording in Hosea 12:3-5, which recounts the story from Genesis 32, and tells us that Jacob met God there, “face to face“.

2.  As to the reason Jacob wrestled with the angel, the Bible doesn’t exactly say – but it’s quite obvious that this was a meaningful encounter with the Lord that changed Jacob’s life.  From that day forward, he walked differently, literally, but he also was a different man – no longer the conniving, scheming, cheater that he once was.  Personally, I love the way Eugene Peterson put it in his Message paraphrase of Hosea 12:

In the womb, that heel, Jacob, got the best of his brother.
When he grew up, he tried to get the best of God.
But God would not be bested.
God bested him.
Brought to his knees,
Jacob wept and prayed.
God found him at Bethel.
That’s where he spoke with him.
God is God-of-the-Angel-Armies,
God-Revealed, God-Known.

3.  Not sure if this was a question, but I think it’s safe to say that this was NOT an everyday occurrence.  Initially, Jacob probably thought he was wrestling a man, a stranger who came to harm him – before later realizing that it was the Angel of God.  At least, that’s my opinion.

4.  Your next question is very insightful, and I think a lot of us miss it when reading the story: how could Jacob overcome an angel? Remember, one angel killed 185,000 men in one night (2Kings 19:35) and one angel will be strong enough to bind the devil and throw him into the bottomless pit (Rev. 20:1-3).  So the only conclusion I can draw is that the Angel allowed Jacob to prevail – much like a father might ‘wrestle’ with his young son and ‘let’ the boy win.

As I see it, God initiated this encounter with Jacob and then allowed Jacob to prevail, so HE could bless the ‘changed’ Jacob as HE wanted – just as HE loves us, reaches out to us, encourages us to trust Him, and then rewards us when we do believe!  What a wonderful God He is!!!

5.  I’m sure you probably are – seems like there’s always more in God’s Word that we haven’t discovered yet!

Hope that helps.  Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

Ask the Pastor

August 20, 2010

One of our young minister’s in training asks, “I’m reading John MacArthur’s Twelve Ordinary Men and my question is in regards to the title of Apostle.  Jesus gave the twelve disciples this title and Paul also held it.  My questions are: were they the only thirteen with the title of apostle in that time?  Do you think that it is a title that has been just thrown around in the church?  Is it a title that should be used at all?  It seems like a very prestigious title, and one that shouldn’t be taken lightly.  Thanks for your time and insight, pastor.”

Good question.  I’ve not read that book, so I have no idea if my thoughts will agree with the author’s or not.  But here’s my best shot, in order:

1.  In my understanding of the Scripture, there were definitely other apostles besides the 13 you mention.  For instance, Acts 15:22 certainly implies that Barsabas and Silas were among the apostles and Romans 16:7 names Andronicus and Junias as well.  My view of Ephesians 4:11-13 is that the ministerial gift-office of “apostle” also continues even to this present day.

2.  That’s my understanding of the title “apostle” in Scripture.  Assuming that your second question has to do with local churches in America, I’m afraid that my opinion is similar to yours.  Personally, it’s almost a joke to me how so many have assumed/acquired the title without “doing the stuff” (meaning they don’t have the necessary fruit of an apostle in their life).

3.  As to whether the title should be used today, I have mixed-emotions.  From a Biblical standpoint, there’s no reason why the title can’t or shouldn’t be used.  However, and this is just my personal opinion, it seems that so many have taken the title without having the fruit that it is now ‘tainted’ in my mind.  For instance, part of the ministry of an apostle seems to be ‘fathering’ other pastors and congregations.  Some have even suggested that I am an apostle because of the work we’ve done in fathering other pastors, here at CLC and abroad.  I have received numerous prophetic words in the past that I am called to that role.  But I have specifically resisted the title, because in my mind, to take it to myself seems presumptuous and egotistical.

However, having said that, I’m not ready to throw out the title completely, and I definitely recognize other men of God who fit that role AND have the fruit to prove it.  (My pastor, Bishop Joseph Garlington, would be one such example).  Most of the men that I know personally who qualify for the title have taken a similar stance and don’t want the title – so it’s easier to refer to them as “having an apostolic ministry” or “serving in an apostolic role”.  As I have stated publicly at CLC in the past, I would much rather “do the stuff and not have the title” as to “have the title and not do the stuff”!

I hope this helps – although I recognize many will disagree – these are strictly my own opinions.

Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

Ask the Pastor

August 13, 2010

A faithful CLC writes, “Pastor, what are your thoughts about this date that many theologians are saying is the day God will destroy the earth. I know there have been dates passed about before, but this one seems like it may have some merit. Here is a summary of what I’ve read and keep hearing: ” In 2 Peter 3:8, God reminds us that one day is as 1,000 years. Therefore, with the correct understanding that the seven days referred to in Genesis 7:4 can be understood as 7,000 years, we learn that when God told Noah there were seven days to escape worldwide destruction, He was also telling the world there would be exactly 7,000 years (one day is as 1,000 years) to escape the wrath of God that would come when He destroys the world on Judgment Day. Because Holy Infinite God is all-knowing, He knows the end from the beginning. He knew how sinful the world would become. Seven thousand years after 4990 B.C. (the year of the Flood) is the year 2011 A.D. (our calendar). 4990 + 2011 – 1 = 7,000 [One year must be subtracted in going from an Old Testament B.C. calendar date to a New Testament A.D. calendar date because the calendar does not have a year zero.] Thus Holy God is showing us by the words of 2 Peter 3:8 that He wants us to know that exactly 7,000 years after He destroyed the world with water in Noah’s day, He plans to destroy the entire world forever. Because the year 2011 A.D. is exactly 7,000 years after 4990 B.C. when the flood began, the Bible has given us absolute proof that the year 2011 is the end of the world during the Day of Judgment, which will come on the last day of the Day of Judgment. Amazingly, May 21, 2011 is the 17th day of the 2nd month of the Biblical calendar of our day. Remember, the flood waters also began on the 17th day of the 2nd month, in the year 4990 B.C. ” I just want to know what your thoughts are.”

Wow!  Sounds like someone you’ve heard has it all figured out.  Unfortunately, I don’t think I agree with a single point, and since you asked for my thoughts, here goes, in order:

1.  Most importantly, when it comes to interpreting prophecy about end-times, always keep in mind what Jesus Himself said in Matthew 24:35-36.  That understanding is repeated in several other passages (Matt. 25:13; Mark 13:31-33; Acts 1:6-8) – and I think it’s pretty clear: timing is the Father’s business, not ours.  I personally understand that to mean that NO ONE ever has or ever will be able to successfully predict when Jesus will return or when the world will be destroyed, etc.  (And for good reason, in my humble opinion, because it’s much more important for us to stay focused on our “assignment” of reaching the whole world with the gospel, rather than trying to figure out the mystery of when it will happen!)

2.  I do not see 2Pet 3:8 as a ‘mathematical formula’ to help us determine dates; I think Peter is reminding us that God transcends time as we know it; i.e., to Him, one day is like a thousand years and a thousand years is like one day, since HE is eternal and has never been bound by time as we are.  (Again, that’s my humble opinion about that verse-)

3.  I also don’t see any reason to interpret Gen. 7:4 as being a ‘prophetic’ message to the world about a future Judgment Day.  In fact, the first rule of hermeneutics (the principles of interpreting Scripture) is that the Bible should be interpreted literally unless there is a compelling reason to do otherwise.  In this case, it sure seems simple to me that God is telling Noah that the rain will begin in 7 days, period.

4.  I’m also a little concerned about the liberal use of the word, “exactly” in the paragraphs you quote – since I’m not aware of any exact dates that theologians agree on regarding ancient events like the Flood.  In fact, I’ve even seen estimates for the birth of Christ occurring in 4 B.C., putting His death at Calvary in 29 A.D., rather than 33 A.D. as so many have assumed.  My point is simply that I don’t think we really know exactly what year Noah’s flood took place, so to try to extrapolate from that and come up with an “exact” date for the Judgment Day seems rather impossible.

5.  Finally, and I mean no offense here, but I suspect the articles you’re quoting from have been written by one or more of the many preachers who, in my opinion, are “majoring on the minors“.  I understand why that happens, because this kind of speculation is sexier and feeds our curiosity about the future, etc. (it’s an easy way to attract interest).  But I honestly see this and similar speculations as drawing our focus and attention away from where it really should be; namely on doing our part to fulfill the Great Commission that Jesus gave us all in Mark 16:15.  One thing I think ALL theologians do agree on is that we are living in the last days, and according to Acts 3:20-21, Jesus must remain in heaven until we have finished that task and God will then restore all things.

I do hope this helped a bit.  Forgive me if I came across harshly toward ‘prophecy preachers’ – I’ve just lived long enough to see so many of their past predictions about end-times fail, and I’m not convinced that God ever intended for us to focus on the timing instead of the need for us to be ready and help others get ready for eternity.

Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

Mind your P’s and Q’s

August 10, 2010

Ever heard that expression?  More importantly, ever wonder what it means?  Well, according to this source, it seems we’re really not quite sure.a

But I am sure about one thing regarding Q’s (and A’s) – that is, there won’t be any in this blog on Friday as scheduled, unless somebody submits a question before then.  Seems I’ve answered all the stuff you were curious about in previous posts, so I’m just waiting now for some more ‘inquiring minds’ who want to know!

How about it?  Is there something YOU would like to Ask the Pastor?  If so, please leave a comment below, and then check Friday’s posting.

Ask the Pastor

July 30, 2010

One of my favorite CLCers texted me in Alaska to ask, “Pastor, is gambling biblically wrong?”

Since I’m on vacation, I texted back a brief, “yes” – but that’s really not the full answer.  See, gambling is another one of several practices that preachers (and some Christians) have condemned in a kneejerk reaction, without full Biblical support.  So here’s the LONGER version:

The truth is, as best I can tell, gambling is virtually unmentioned in the Bible, except for the prophecy that the soldiers would gamble for Jesus’ garment (Psalm 22:18) and it’s fulfillment (Matt 27:35, Luke 23:34 or John 19:24), unless you count The Message translation of Proverbs 22:26-27.

For those to be the ONLY references to gambling definitely puts the practice in a negative light, but it’s hardly a commandment against.  As I see it, gambling is just one of many different activities that Scripture does not clearly forbid or clearly approve – they are what my pastor used to call “questionables”.

Apostle Paul offers guidelines to help us decide which of those questionable activities are acceptable for us.  Actually, his guidelines can be stated as 8 questions to help us decide whether or not to indulge in a given activity. If we can’t say ‘yes’, we should refrain:

1.  Am I fully persuaded that it is right? Paul says (Rom 14:5, 14, 23) that whatever we do in these areas, we must be persuaded it is acceptable before God. If there is doubt, Paul says there is sin.

2. Can I do it as unto the Lord? Whatever we do, Paul says we must do as unto the Lord (Rom 14:6–8). To do something as unto the Lord is to do it as serving him.

3.  Can I do it without being a stumbling block to my brother or sister in Christ? Much of Romans 14 (vv. 13, 15, 20–21) concerns watching out for other’s walk with the Lord. We may be able to indulge, but he or she may not have faith to see that the activity is morally indifferent. If he or she sees us participate, he or she may be offended. As much as possible, we must avoid giving offense in these areas. This, however, does not mean one must always refrain (Rom. 14:22). If you believe you can indulge, have that faith before God. In other words, don’t flaunt your liberty before others..

4. Does it bring peace? In Rom 14:19 Paul instructs us to do what brings peace.

5. Does it edify my brother? Some activities may not create strife with another Christian, but they may not edify him either. Choose those activities which both bring peace and edify (Rom. 14:19 again).

6. Is it profitable? In 1 Cor 6:12 Paul reminds us that morally indifferent practices are all lawful, but they may not all be profitable (beneficial). They may be unprofitable for us or for our brother. For example, no law prohibits playing cards, but if my card playing causes a brother to stumble, it is unprofitable for me to indulge. If the act is unprofitable, I must refuse to do it.

7. Does it enslave me? (1 Cor 6:12). Many activities, wholesome and valuable in themselves, become unprofitable if they master us more than Christ does.

8. Does it bring glory to God? Paul discusses Christian liberty in 1 Corinthians 10, and in verse 31 he sums up his discussion by saying that whatever we do in these areas should bring glory to God. How do we know if our actions bring God glory? I’d say at the least that if you answer any of the other 7 questions negatively in regard to a particular activity, you can be sure you’ll not bring God glory if you indulge.

Add to that the truth that you have a greater chance of being struck by lightning than you do of winning the Lotto, plus the clear NT teaching that the love of money is the root of all evil (1Tim. 6:10), and I think you can make the right choice for each opportunity to gamble.

Hope that helps.  Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

Ask the Pastor

July 23, 2010

A reader writes, “God’s Name- Should We Use It?  For many years now, people have been showing gross disrespect for the Almighty God in NOT using his matchless holy name, JEHOVAH being the English form of the Divine name.- Exodus 6:3, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4   Jesus set the finest example in using his Father’s name. John 17:6, 26 clearly showed that Christ made God’s name, Jehovah known; of course, using the Hebrew and Greek forms of God’s name. The name JEHOVAH, is the MOST important name in the entire universe, since God, Jehovah, is the MOST HIGH in the universe, the Creator. (Psalms 83:18) How would we like it if our friends and others refuse to use our names; instead, they use expressions like man, woman, boy, or girl to address us? Certainly we would not like that. We appreciate our names as labels identifying who we are as distinct from other individuals. Similarly, how does God feel when his name is not used to address Him, in prayer or otherwise? God appreciates it when his name is used respectfully, rather than replacing his name with titles such as “God” or “Lord”. * God’s name identifies Him from all the other false gods in existence, and from everyone and everything else. Furthermore, God’s name has a MEANING behind it, far more important than any meaning behind any human name. REALLY, how can someone dare not use the name of the HIGHEST being there is in the universe, when God wants his name to be made known as Christ did!  So will we follow Jesus’ example and use God’s name, Jehovah; also making that name known to others? (John 17:6, 26) It is up to each one of us to answer that question. * I do not mean to suggest that it is wrong to say “God” or “Lord,” at times, just the same way it is not wrong to say “man” or “woman” if appropriate. However, we should not avoid the use of God’s personal name, a name that God greatly appreciates, just as we do not avoid using a friend’s name, which is far less important than God’s name, Jehovah. Therefore, the name, “Jehovah” should be used far more than “God” or “Lord”.  May we show deep respect for God by using his name, JEHOVAH.  Any thoughts on this?”

I have several thoughts on this.  First, it may be the first time a question in this blog is longer than the answer!  Secondly, it appears to me that you aren’t really asking a question, but rather trying to ‘hijack’ my blog to express your own opinion.  However, just in case I’m mistaken and your interest represents a sincere desire to walk in truth, I’ll give you my thoughts:

1.  Why settle on “Jehovah” as THE name?  After all (in case you’re not aware), the Hebrew texts certainly didn’t include any vowels, and probably the best any scholar can do with God’s name is “YHWH”.  The vowels added are strictly man’s attempt to make sense of the Hebrew.  And even IF Jehovah or Yahweh is the correct name, that would ONLY apply to English speakers, since God’s Name would have a different translation in Spanish or Swahili or French or, well, you get my point.  So while your intent may be well-intentioned, it is simply NOT possible for us to choose one name and require all believers to use it exclusively.

2.  More importantly, the Scripture does recommend one name to us – and it’s not Jehovah – notice Philippians 2:9-11 and Acts 4:12, as both are quite clear that one name is Jesus!

3.  Finally, I think it’s sad that so many believers seem to be drawn toward ‘fringe’ beliefs or ‘non-issue issues’ instead of majoring on the settled truths of Scripture.  I guess I’ll take my place with the man who said,  “it’s NOT the passages in Scripture I don’t understand that bother me, it’s the ones I do understand!” For sure, it’s better to be doers than hearers only!

Hope that helps.  Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

Ask the Pastor

July 16, 2010

One of our Shorewood CLCers writes, “Could you please explain 1 Peter 3:18-20. I have heard that Jesus went to the bowels of the earth or some say Hell after his crucifixion. Did Jesus really go to hell to preach to the unsaved??? If not then why did he go to preach to the spirits in prison? Will those who heard be saved? Can you explain this confusing verse please?”

Great questions, from an admittedly difficult passage.  Here’s my understanding:

First, when it comes to any difficult or confusing verse in Scripture, always remember: “context, context, context”!  I’ve heard a lot of strange ideas from this passage, but in my humble opinion, the key to understanding it is found in the passage itself.

After consulting several translations, I chose the NKJV above because it seems to clarify best.  Notice that verse 18 says Jesus was made alive by “the Spirit” (obviously referring to the Holy Spirit). Then verse 19 gives us a major key to understanding the passage – “by whom” – i.e., it was by the Holy Spirit that he preached to imprisoned spirits. Verse 20 then gives us the time frame this preaching took place: in Noah’s day, while the ark was being built!

So, in putting all of that together, I don’t see this passage saying ANYTHING about what happened to Jesus after He died or as being a reference to Him preaching in hell.  Rather, I see this passage teaching us that while the ark was under construction, Noah was warning the people about God’s judgment, and the Spirit of Christ was working through him to try to reach those people.  I think the “imprisoned” reference is a figurative, poetic way to say that God had assigned this period of time that He would deal with them through the Holy Spirit.  Genesis 6:3 tells us that God would not always strive with man by His Spirit – but that man would have a limited time to respond to Him (generally, 120 years). 2Pet. 2:5 and Hebrews 11:7 both speak of the important role that Noah played in warning people of the coming judgment.

Now, IF this passage is about Jesus going into hell after his death (as Acts 2:31 and Rev. 1:18 and Eph 4:7-9 indicate) I can tell you for certain that He did NOT preach to people in hell to give them a “second chance” after death, for that would violate Hebrews 9:27 as well as numerous other verses.  The Jewish understanding of “hades” prior to the Resurrection of Christ is that it was the place of departed spirits and was divided in two compartments, one for the wicked and one for the righteous, which they called, “Abraham’s bosom”.

If Jesus went to hell after his death, during the three days His body was in the grave, it would have been only to visit the righteous dead and announce to them the good news of His death, and then take them with Him at His resurrection.

Everyone in the Old Testament looked “ahead” to the death of Christ in order to be saved; everyone in the New Covenant looks “back” to the death of Christ in order to be saved.  The passages I have cited above certainly ‘fit’ with that interpretation.  But it is not possible that He preached to someone after their death and they were able to be saved.

I think sometimes the problem is with us preachers who take poetic license in a sermon and describe Jesus going to hell and demanding of Satan, “give me the keys”.  It’s dramatic, and it’ll preach, but I’m not really sure we can prove that encounter ever happened in Scripture.

What I DO know is that Jesus IS victorious over death, hell and the grave – and that all those who put their trust in Him will have everlasting life!

Hope that helps!  Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

Ask the Pastor

June 25, 2010

My #1 questioner writes, “I have a question about 1Tim 4:1-5.  This question may be an individual’s choice, but I get kind of confused when I hear so many Christians announce that they do not eat meat of any kind – when vv. 3-4 indicate we can eat meat. Pastor can you explain this to me?  Is this something that has changed since our food is so polluted now or shall we eat anything we choose as long as we pray and give thanksgiving for everything we eat? Also, I don’t want to offend anybody but even vegetarians are at risk because of the chemicals and sprays. Pregnant women are forbidden to eat fish because of the mercury and Organic food is good but sometimes a large household with kids can’t afford all organic foods. Can you shed a little light on this for me?”

Well, I can try.  It’s a good question, since as you point out, some believers seem to have strong opinions about their diet.  First, I’m guessing that you refer to the KJV of the text rather than the NLT quoted above.  So from a Bible interpretation view, the passage obviously refers to any foods we eat, not just meat.

I think the real issue is whether people are making their dietary choices because of a supposed commandment in Scripture (such as this passage) OR if they’re making choices based on their own preferences (whether those are health concerns or taste preferences).

If someone chooses to abstain from ANY foods because of their health concerns or personal preferences, that’s fine – probably all of us should be a little more diligent in regards to eating right.  But for anyone to abstain from any food because they think the Bible forbids it – well, based on the text you cited and others, they are just sadly mistaken.  According to 1Tim. 4:1-5, Rom. 14:20-22, Heb. 9:8-12, and Rom. 14:17, we simply are not under the dietary restrictions of the Old Testament law any longer.

Having said that, I will say that my understanding of the Old Testament restrictions is that they were given by God for the health of His people.  Personally, I don’t think pork or shrimp is the best choice of foods for me to enjoy maximum health – but I don’t personally make that a “law” for myself or anyone else (in fact, I ate ham this week at a church luncheon where it was the only meat offered).

Finally, in spite of everything I’ve said above, if someone has a weak conscience and cannot eat in faith, then by all means, obey Romans 14:2-3, 23.

Hope this helps.  Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor? Please submit your question below – although I’m taking a 2-week vacation, I will answer your questions again on July 16.

I would only add or clarify that

Ask the Pastor

June 18, 2010

My #1 questioner writes: “I have a question about fear.  I know that it is not a good thing to fear and we all know about the book of Job when he said that the very thing he feared came upon him.  Also, we have to be very careful about what we speak because this could cause negative things to happen.  My question is, I have always been taught that we can go to God and talk to Him about anything.  Sometimes I have certain things that frighten me and that I refuse to let myself dwell on because I don’t want the things that happened to Job happen to me.  But when I am in my prayer room I speak these things that frighten me to God(my daddy)and I tell Him these things. Would this be the same as speaking negative things out of my mouth even though I am telling them to God? “

Good question about a much-needed subject.

First, you are right that fear has a way of drawing negativity to us and becoming a “self-fulfilled prophecy”.  That’s because fear is the opposite of faith. So just as faith attracts blessing from God, fear attracts the attention of the enemy by creating an open door into our life.

However, it is my personal opinion that you CAN say anything to God, since he invited us to do so in 1 Peter 5:7.  By telling Him of your fears in prayer, you can receive His assurance and reaffirm your trust in Him (Psalm 56:3).  My only caution is to make sure that once you ‘cast your fear upon Him’ that you leave it there. In other words, don’t give your fears to God in prayer and then pick them up again when you quit praying!  Leave your fears in His hands.

Hope this helped.  Now, what would YOU like to Ask the Pastor?

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